After the words: "Debt expansion in the West is dead - courtesy of the wealthy elite's
Tea Party and Republican Party who have enslaved the American Taxpayers
to the bondage of the wealthy sovereign debt holders via 50 years of
unfunded discretionary spending and 50 years of continuously lowered
revenues via lowered taxes on corporations and the wealthy elite." I get it. Boy-oh-boy do
I get it.
The preceding part of this post, though is way-to-hell-and-gone over my head. If anyone can explain it in simple English, I'd be quite grateful. The projection does seem to be strongly negative - I think.
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All I could gather from that post was a bunch of pseudo-intellectual blather that didn't represent any sort of mathematical modeling that I've ever encountered. It's as if he's making up his own terminology for things that he's invented, and re-purposed other terminology to mean things that they don't mean in mainstream mathematical circles. Well... okay. But when you do that, don't expect anybody to understand WTF you're talking about. I certainly didn't.
- Badtux the Similarly-baffled Penguin
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